IS HAVING PREMARITAL SEX WITH AN UNMARRIED WOMAN A SIN? PART ONE
This is a link to Strong’s definition of fornication. I want you to notice that unmarried sex is not included in the definition of fornication. It’s funny – because “fornication” is used as an adjective to describe the word, FORNICATION 😮
Yes. That’s like asking, what is adultery? And the answer being: adultery is adultery. What? You can’t use the same word to describe the same word your describing. It’s like using the word “hot” to describe the state or condition of being “hot.” You can’t use the word you’re describing to describe the word you’re describing. THAT MAKES ABSOLUTELY NO SENSE. Yet, that’s exactly what James Strong has done. James Strong (1822-1894), author of the Strong’s concordance, was a Christian Methodist.
This might explain why Strong’s definition doesn’t say yay or nay to the question of whether or not premarital/unmarried sex is included in the definition of fornication. I believe Strong knew that if he told the truth about certain words like fornication, he would possibly lose MANY of his Christian customers and ruin his life’s work. Why? Because Christianity teaches that the first and foremost definition of fornication is premarital/unmarried sex. I believe Strong knew that his number one readers would be Christians, point blank, period. So he didn’t want to offend his number one customers by telling them that unmarried/premarital sex is not included in the definition of fornication. I believe he chose to be ambiguous and leave the interpretation of fornication OPEN, by using the word “fornication” to define the word “fornication.”
(1) illicit sexual intercourse
(1a) adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc.
(1b) sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18
(1c) sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11,12 [see footnote below]***
(2) metaph. the worship of idols
(2a) of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols
πορνεία porneía, por-ni’-ah; from G4203; harlotry (including adultery and incest); figuratively, idolatry:—fornication.
He says fornication is “illicit sexual intercourse.” Okay? Well what is illicit sexual intercourse??? Well, under the heading: illicit sexual intercourse – he lists examples of illicit sexual intercourse. He says: harlotry (including adultery and incest), figuratively, idolatry:—
—> and fornication.
So from this we know that adultery and incest are definitely acts of fornication. SEX SINS. But at the end, Mr. Strong does something fishy. He uses the word “fornication” to describe FORNICATION. What? Yup. That makes no sense. Fornication is not a subjective word, like HOT or COLD. What’s hot to me, might be cold to you. You feel me? The word ‘fornication’ isn’t defined by a person’s subjective experience. The word ‘fornication’ is an objective word. There’s no need to use the word to describe itself.
So, as we read further, Strong says fornication is:
illicit sexual intercourse
adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc.
sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18
sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11,12 <—
☝☝☝[(Jesus created two new sins here. Until Jesus said this, these things were never sins and are not considered sins anywhere in the Hebrew Bible (aka Old Testament) according to Deuteronomy 24:1-4 “When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man’s wife. And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife; Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and thou shalt not cause the land to sin, which the LORD thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.”
☝☝☝[ if you were a righteous man that obeyed Torah his entire life and you divorced your wife and married another, Jesus is now telling you that even though you’ve obeyed Mosaic Law your entire life, that your present marriage is adulterous and that you must now divorce your present wife to get out of being an adulterer. Mosaic law says if your wife is married to another man, you can never take her back ever again, even if her husband dies. Which means you must spend the rest of your life as a single man. Not because Torah (Mosaic Law) said so, but because HE said so. Jesus said he did not come to do away with the law and that not one jot or tittle shall pass away from the law, but he just did away with it RIGHT HERE. This is not the only time Jesus changed the law he claimed he did not come to change. Whenever I’m faced with the decision whether or not to keep Torah or follow Jesus, I choose to keep Torah. Too many times Jesus said he did not come to change or alter Torah, and that’s exactly what he did more than once.]
Okay. So, once again, we can walk away knowing that adultery, homosexuality, incest, bestiality, etc, are definitely acts of fornication.
(I left lesbianism out because I have LITERALLY found no Torah in Mosaic Law that says same sex relations amongst women to be prohibited. Not anywhere, literally NO WHERE in the Hebrew Bible, Torah or the prophets. And we have NO Torah (Mosaic Law) or commandment for putting women to death for having same sex relations.
So, Strong adds “idolatry” to the definition. But yet again, he uses the word ‘fornication’ to describe the word ‘fornication.’ That’s called circular reasoning. Because what are we supposed to do to find the definition to the word ‘fornication’? LOOK UP THE WORD ‘FORNICATION’?
WELL, THAT’S WHAT WE’RE DOING RIGHT NOW. So, why is Strong using the word fornication, to describe fornication?
I believe he did this because he’s a Christian Methodist and the BIBLE never listed premarital/unmarried sex as a sin. But Christianity teaches that premarital/unmarried sex is a sin. So, rather than have his Christian contemporaries accuse him of being a heretic, he left the definition open to interpretation. But, Biblically, there’s no punishment for premarital/unmarried sex in the old or the new testament. The new testament is NOT SPECIFIC on the definition of fornication. So, most Christians go along with the english definition. Torah’s position on Homosexuality is death. You’re stoned to death. The same goes for bestiality, having sex with another man’s wife, etc, etc. Unmarried sex being added to the list of sex sins, is gratuitous. Redundant. Voluntary. Volitional. Because the BIBLE ITSELF (literal translation of fornication) never hinted even a shadow on unmarried sex being a sin. And by unmarried, we’re talking about unmarried women. It’s NOT a sin for married MEN to have sex with unmarried women. Why? Because the Bible is a PATRIARCHAL BOOK. And we have no Torah that supports the notion that the Rules which apply to women, equally apply to men. Men and women are NOT equal. Men (married or otherwise) are NOT prohibited from having sex with unmarried women, even harlots and prostitutes.
Judah was married when he had sex with his daughter in law, Tamar (he thought she was a prostitute).
“And it came to pass at that time, that Judah went down from his brethren, and turned in to a certain Adullamite, whose name was Hirah. And Judah saw there a daughter of a certain Canaanite, whose name was Shuah; and he took her, and went in unto her.” Genesis 38:1,2
A married man having sex with a harlot is not a sin according to Torah.
At that time Judah left his brothers and stayed with an Adullamite man named Hirah. There Judah saw the daughter of a Canaanite man named Shua. Judah acquired her as a wife and had marital relations with her. She became pregnant and had a son. Judah named him Er. She became pregnant again and had another son, whom she named Onan. Then she had yet another son, whom she named Shelah. She gave birth to him in Kezib. Judah acquired a wife for Er his firstborn; her name was Tamar. But Er, Judah’s firstborn, was evil in the Lord’s sight, so the Lord killed him. Then Judah said to Onan, “Have sexual relations with your brother’s wife and fulfill the duty of a brother-in-law to her so that you may raise up a descendant for your brother.” But Onan knew that the child would not be considered his. So whenever he had sexual relations with his brother’s wife, he withdrew prematurely so as not to give his brother a descendant. What he did was evil in the Lord’s sight, so the Lord killed him too. Then Judah said to his daughter-in-law Tamar, “Live as a widow in your father’s house until Shelah my son grows up.” For he thought, “I don’t want him to die like his brothers.” So Tamar went and lived in her father’s house.” And in process of time the daughter of Shuah Judah’s wife died; and Judah was comforted, and went up unto his sheepshearers to Timnath, he and his friend Hirah the Adullamite. And it was told Tamar, saying, Behold thy father in law goeth up to Timnath to shear his sheep. And she put her widow’s garments off from her, and covered her with a vail, and wrapped herself, and sat in an open place, which is by the way to Timnath; for she saw that Shelah was grown, and she was not given unto him to wife. When Judah saw her, he thought her to be an harlot; because she had covered her face. And he turned unto her by the way, and said, Go to, I pray thee, let me come in unto thee; (for he knew not that she was his daughter in law.) And she said, What wilt thou give me, that thou mayest come in unto me? And he said, I will send thee a kid from the flock. And she said, Wilt thou give me a pledge, till thou send it? And he said, What pledge shall I give thee? And she said, Thy signet, and thy bracelets, and thy staff that is in thine hand. And he gave it her, and came in unto her, and she conceived by him. And she arose, and went away, and laid by her vail from her, and put on the garments of her widowhood. And Judah sent the kid by the hand of his friend the Adullamite, to receive his pledge from the woman’s hand: but he found her not. Then he asked the men of that place, saying, Where is the harlot, that was openly by the way side? And they said, There was no harlot in this place. And he returned to Judah, and said, I cannot find her; and also the men of the place said, that there was no harlot in this place. And Judah said, Let her take it to her, lest we be shamed: behold, I sent this kid, and thou hast not found her. And it came to pass about three months after, that it was told Judah, saying, Tamar thy daughter in law hath played the harlot; and also, behold, she is with child by whoredom. And Judah said, Bring her forth, and let her be burnt. When she was brought forth, she sent to her father in law, saying, By the man, whose these are, am I with child: and she said, Discern, I pray thee, whose are these, the signet, and bracelets, and staff. And Judah acknowledged them, and said, She hath been more righteous than I; because that I gave her not to Shelah my son. And he knew her again no more. Genesis 38:1-26
Summary: Judah marries the daughter of Shua, a Canaanite. (Genesis chapter 38) Judah and his wife have three children, Er, Onan, and Shelah. Er marries Tamar, but God kills him because he “was wicked in the sight of the Lord” (Gen. 38:7). Tamar becomes Onan’s wife in accordance with custom, but he too is killed after he refuses to father children for his older brother’s childless widow, and spills his seed instead. Although Tamar should have married Shelah, the remaining brother, Judah did not consent, and in response Tamar deceives Judah into having intercourse with her by pretending to be a prostitute. When Judah discovers that Tamar is pregnant he prepares to have her killed, but recants and confesses when he finds out that he is the father (Gen. 38:24-26). Wikipedia
☝☝☝So right here we have a Biblical precedent of a married man having sex with who he thought was a prostitute, but who was actually his daughter in law. But the fact is, that he did this as a married man, under the assumption that the woman he was having sex with was in fact a prostitute. And we have no evidence in this story to show that he had done anything wrong other than refuse to give his third son to his daughter in law.
We must go on Biblical commands, Biblical injunctions (direct orders), Biblical precepts, case law and precedents. If the Bible doesn’t say it, we have to ask ourselves WHO SAID IT? AND WHY?? And then look up those words in the Greek and Hebrew to make sure the person ACTUALLY SAID IT.
Even Wikipedia’s BIBLICAL definition of FORNICATION does NOT include unmarried (premarital) sex.
In the original Greek version of the New Testament, the term porneia (πορνεία – “prostitution”) is used 25 times (including variants such as the genitive πορνείας).
In the late 4th century, the Latin Vulgate, a Latin translation of the Greek texts, translated the term as fornicati, fornicatus, fornicata, and fornicatae. The 1611 King James Version used the term fornication. Other translations have used terms such as whoredom, sexual immorality (e.g., Matthew 19:9) or simply immorality.
In Latin, the term fornix means arch or vault. In Ancient Rome, prostitutes waited for their customers out of the rain under vaulted ceilings, and fornix became a euphemism for brothels, and the Latin verb fornicare referred to a man visiting a brothel. The first recorded use in English is in the Cursor Mundi, c. 1300; the Oxford English Dictionary (OED) records a figurative use as well: “The forsaking of God for idols”. Fornicated as an adjective is still used in botany, meaning “arched” or “bending over” (as in a leaf). John Milton plays on the double meaning of the word in The Reason of Church-Government Urged against Prelaty (1642): “[She] gives up her body to a mercenary whordome under those fornicated [ar]ches which she cals Gods house.”
After all of that, we see no mention of fornication including premarital/unmarried sex. Only ENGLISH definitions of fornication include premarital/unmarried sex. So, you MUST ask yourself, WHY? The authors of the Bible did NOT speak or write the Bible in English. They spoke and wrote in Hebrew and the New Testament was translated from Hebrew, to Greek (except for Paul’s epistles) to english. This is why we study the Bible in its original tongue (not english), to find out its original meaning. We’re not looking for the Christian meaning of these words. We’re looking for the literal, BIBLICAL meaning of these words before, during and after the conception of Christianity.
The Hebrew and Greek BIBLICAL definition of fornication is NOT “premarital/unmarried sex.”
To be continued…